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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

10.06.2025 10:43

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

How does Arab culture and values differ from western culture and values?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Elon Musk threatened to decommission Dragon spacecraft. Here's what that would mean for NASA - ABC News

You'll usually find your answer there.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What one thing makes someone a very mature person?

There's no rule.